michiguel wrote:bob wrote:Uri Blass wrote:bob wrote:
So you are saying that these two things are different, semantically:
if (x >= 0.0) a=10;
if (0.0 < x) a=10;
They are IDENTICAL, in fact. So exactly what is the "no, it does not mean the same thing?" supposed to be about???
They are not identical
if you start with x=0.0 a=5 you are going to get a=10 in the first case and a=5 in the second case.
Oops. You are correct. make it x >= 0.0 and 0.0 <= x in the second...
Doesn't really change a thing in the discussion.
No, it doesn't change a thing.
I find the second a bit harder to "grasp" semantically. I want to know if X is not negative. The second option doesn't make that as clear as the first one...
By the way, that makes this discussion even more implausible. Typing <= doesn't give much opportunity to hit the key with the "." on it...
Again, it does not change a thing.
0.<x has the '.' besides the '<'
0.<=x has the '.' besides the '<'
But, you will keep arguing something about the '='
You read my first email about this, but none of the 8 that followed it.
Do I think this is what happened? most likely not, but if you are going to dismiss and alternative scenario, do it based on something substantial, not on outrageous claims like "nobody uses an inverted comparison".
There are other alternatives that nobody mentioned, like using a macro and then you will get ',' besides '.' or even typing something by mistake when the cursor is not where you think it is in the screen. That happened to me a gazillion times. Most of the time I find it because a compiler error is introduced, but if it is legal...
The point is that it is very dangerous to hold somebody guilty of something based on "one" character because the alternative scenarios you did not think about increases.
Miguel
You are using the same strawman argument Ed is using. The "." by itself is not completely convincing, so he didn't copy. The "." is pretty convincing. Taken in conjunction with all the other evidence, it is completely convincing.
x >= .0 or .0 <= x, HOW do you get that "." key in there. Let's take the possible lines one by one and type them.
For "if (x >= 0.0)"
You hit > on the bottom row, ring finger, then same finger to top row to hit the =, and then move two keys to the left and hit the 0. How did he hit the "."?
For "if (x >= .0)
You hit > on the bottom row, ring finger, then same finger to top row to hit the =, and then move back to the bottom row to somehow hit the '.', and then back to the top row to hit the 0 key. Why did he hit that "." which is away from every other character he had to type?
For "if (0.0 <= x)"
how did the "." get in there? copying.
For "if (0. <= x)"
He hit the 0 on the top key, then next wanted to hit the < key (which is shifted). How did he accidentally hit that "." key BEFORE he hit the space bar? 0.<x is not something anyone would type naturally. 0<x is also not natural for an experienced programmer.
Don't just quote this crap about "there is a '.' key on the keyboard and he could easily have hit it..." Tell me how/why his finger would have been anywhere near that key if he intended to type either of these two lines:
if (movetime >= 0) {
or
if (0 <= movetime) {
Where do you get the '.' by accident for either? What finger is close to the '.' when typing EITHER of those statements? Only when typing the > character for the first, yet we know, for absolute certainty that the next character was an '='. SO that's out. On the second, how did he get the . in front of the 0? Not likely. What about the 0. <= movetime? He hit the 0, on the top row, then somehow hit the key to the right of the <, without the shift key down?
Does you REALLY believe that is anything near being called "a plausible explanation?" "Possible?" Yes. But "plausible"? Not a chance. "Possible" doesn't cut it in this kind of proceeding. "preponderance of the evidence" is the standard... Or beyond "reasonable doubt." Not "beyond any possible way-way-out-there doubt."
Utter and complete nonsense.
This is trying to find some explanation why the floor is wet, when any normal person looks up and sees a 3 foot hole in the roof and it is raining outside and concludes that the rain came in through the hole. Of course there COULD have been a plumbing leak. But none is found. Of course it COULD have stopped by itself. But is is reasonable?